By Charles Halton on Saturday, 10 October 2009 at 9:56 am
It seems that the normally sleepy discipline of philology is starting to take on some of the sensationalistic sizzle normally reserved for archaeology. John Hobbins sagaciously notes: “Scholars are known to succumb to the temptation of suggesting that their findings are of revolutionary significance even if they are not.” It seems to me that this statement describes Ellen Van Wolde’s recent comments regarding Genesis 1. From her translation of Gen 1:1 as “in the beginning God separated the Heaven and the Earth” she concludes: “It meant to say that God did create humans and animals, but not the Earth itself.” In other words she says that Gen 1 is concerned with God forming the world through pre-existent matter by separating the land from water, etc.
I find it hard to discern what is new or even noteworthy here. Scholars have been saying this for years. In fact, the translation commissioned by the National Council of Churches, the New Revised Standard Version, contains this interpretation by translating Gen 1:1 as “In the beginning when God created the heavens and the earth…” Furthermore, even evangelical scholars have embraced this view–most recently John Walton who has a new book out by IVP and a forthcoming volume also by Eisenbrauns (the publisher of Van Wolde’s new book on this subject).
Like John Hobbins I respect Van Wolde’s scholarship I just wish that it wasn’t dressed in sensationalism.
Comments (13)
Category: All,In the News
- Add this post to
- Del.icio.us -
- Digg
Comment by Brian P Gault
Made Saturday, 10 of October , 2009 at 11:08 am
I was thinking the same thing when I read the post about her book. Apparently, if I call my ideas new, even when they are not, it will help get it published.
Comment by Angela Erisman
Made Saturday, 10 of October , 2009 at 2:58 pm
People need something to get all excited about, or life’s boring. If you can’t find something new to get all excited about, why not get all excited about something old? It’s like rediscovering nifty clothes at the back of your closet that you didn’t know you had.
Comment by Charles Halton
Made Saturday, 10 of October , 2009 at 3:37 pm
That’s a good way of putting it, Angie!
Comment by John
Made Monday, 12 of October , 2009 at 3:24 pm
Setting aside the supposed novelty of the idea, is the idea tenable?
Comment by Charles Halton
Made Monday, 12 of October , 2009 at 5:39 pm
John,
I think the idea of God using preexistent matter in his creative activity described in Gen 1 is tenable but her application of the meaning of “to separate” with bara in Gen 1:1 is not. Chris Heard has a good discussion of this at http://www.heardworld.com/higgaion/?p=1535
Comment by John
Made Monday, 12 of October , 2009 at 7:53 pm
Charles,
I read Chris’s discussion, and I agreed with it. I was just wondering if you had anything to add.
I’m wondering if her (alleged) application of the ANE to the biblical presentation of creation is valid. The myths do not admit of a creation ex nihilo, but I’m wondering if Genesis 1:1 is a direct confrontation to the pre-existent matter position. On the face of the text, the verse affirms a creation of the heavens and the earth, which seems to imply that they were not there in the first place. The Ancient versions did not interpret the text any differently, but only seem to affirm this position.
Pingback by Does Genesis 1:1 Teach That God Created the Heavens and the Earth? « LXX Studies
Made Tuesday, 13 of October , 2009 at 1:01 pm
[...] HT: Charles [...]
Comment by Charles Halton
Made Wednesday, 14 of October , 2009 at 10:27 am
John,
There are two explanations that make the theory tenable. Walton proposes a functional definition to bara’ instead of a generative meaning. So, what God did in Gen 1 was to give the preexistent matter its various functions.
Second, repoint bara’ as an inf construct to match the first line of the second creation account in 2:4b.
True that no ancient version goes theses routes but some would not see this as significant since the versions were made a long time after the composition of the first chapters of Gen. Now, it goes without saying that just because a theory might be tenable it doesn’t neccessarily make it correct or even likely.
Comment by Carl
Made Wednesday, 14 of October , 2009 at 11:22 am
Charles,
Why bother repointing bara’ at all? It is unnecessary and detracts from the stylistic elevation of putting a noun in construct with a finite verb (used elsewhere).
John,
I think Gen 1 is trying primarily to tackle the issue of polytheism vs. monotheism in ancient Israel, which leaves creatio ex nihilo as a battle to fight another day (among Hellenistic period thinkers)!
Comment by Charles Halton
Made Wednesday, 14 of October , 2009 at 3:59 pm
Hey Carl, I wasn’t proposing my own theory, I have just read others who advocate reading bara’ as an infinitive and was passing this along as a reason why part of Van Wolde’s theory is tenable.
Comment by John
Made Thursday, 15 of October , 2009 at 12:47 pm
Charles,
Thanks for your response. Agreed, that some will not find the reading of the Versions persuasive due to the time gap, though many of these same scholars will also date the composition of Genesis 1 much later, right? Perhaps, to the fifth century after the 6th century Babylonian myths, right? If this is the case (and I do not hold this view), there is only about 200 years from the original composition to the translation of the LXX and Judaism’s (as opposed to the OT’s position on these scholars’ opinion) view of creatio ex nihilo. It seems to me that these scholars can’t have it both ways. They want to discard the readings of the Versions and have a super late date of the original composition. If they adhere to a late date of composition, I think they have to consider more seriously the fact that they are discounting the evidence of the Versions, which actually arose relatively soon after the original composition on their view. Now, if they date Genesis 1 to the 2nd millennium BC, they may have an argument to make against the Versions on the basis of time, but of course a super early date does not mean that the reading of the Versions is wrong either.
Carl,
Why does it matter that creatio ex nihilo is pounded out in the Hellenistic era, when the texts could be and probably are teaching the same doctrine? Why can’t Gen. 1 accomplish two goals: monotheism and creatio ex nihilo? I think this is the clearest reading of Genesis 1:1 and several other places in the OT seem to depend on it (Is 40:28, 42:5, 45:7 et al). Of course the NT depends on these texts for its doctrine of creation (John 1:1-2, Hebrews 11:3; Colossians 1 et al.). Is this an example of the right doctrine from the wrong texts or wrong doctrine from the wrong texts in your view?
Comment by Charles Halton
Made Friday, 16 of October , 2009 at 8:35 am
John,
You make some great points–people can’t have their cake and eat it too. Personally, like you, I do value the versions quite a lot.
Comment by Hieronymus Illinensis
Made Sunday, 18 of April , 2010 at 2:36 am
If Gen 1 is from the 5th century BCE, it’s as close to Ezekiel as to the LXX. Ezek 21:24 (21:19 in RSV) uses bara’ with a singular object and plainly with the sense of “make” or “set up,” but not “separate.”
I like best Kerry’s comment to the Telegraph story: “The question still remains: If God did not create the earth, who did?” That bara’ does not necessarily have the exact meaning “create ex nihilo” doesn’t mean that God did not create the universe ex nihilo, or even that the Hebrews didn’t believe He did.